In your example, neither benefited. He had to re-mortgage the house for $150K yet lives in the same house.
She gets $150K and needs to borrow another $150K to live in a similar house she was used to.
If they both contributed equally to the marriage in different ways it's fair to make a 50/50 split but I know you put little value on being a homemaker or raising children.
We don't know Barbara's contribution to her marriage so we can't judge if she's asking for too much. Stories about how other people made out well have no bearing on her situation.
Actually no, you are incorrect sir. To live in the same house, she could (theoretically) purchase one for a lot less than $150K. (then, it was years ago). To make your argument valid you should say: live in the same house, in the same neighbourhood, in the same area. You also miss the point that the "value" of the house is estimated and based on the fact that a) they'd have to sell HIS house to get that return b) they'd have to find a buyer to pay that much and this would all have to be done at that very second as housing prices fluctuate.
Kind of like appraisals on diamond rings. There is the appraised value, then what you can buy it for. I've seen rings appraised at $10,000.00 that were purchased for $1500.00.
The 50/50 split should have been on the actual "real" purchase price of the house, not the "pull a number out of my ass" price.
Neither benefitted? Jesus dude...are you serious? The ex wife ended up with $150,000.00 in
CASH and he ended up with a $150,000.00
mortgage....how is that not a benefit? If she had stayed in the house and married she wouldn't have that $150,000.00 and he wouldn't have a mortgage......
As for the value of a homemaker (they didn't have kids), as stated elsewhere in this thread, the value of those services rendered certainly don't equal what the courts say they are. Plus the courts don't consider the COL deduction of the value of those services. If she (or he for that matter) were actually earning x amount, a large chunk of that would be spent simply on "living" expenses. So why is that not considered? Further to that, if she was actually being paid during her tenure as a homemaker, then BOTh their standard of living would have been better would it not? Since they would then be a 2 income family......